jesus wept
Posted: 23 Jul 2007, 20:58
Can somebody tell me the deep and profound meaning of the aforementioned two words? Oh, and not to mention...what's COMMONLY meant by it
The phrase occurs in John's narrative of the death of Lazarus, a friend of Jesus. Lazarus' sisters Mary and Martha sent word to Jesus of their brother's illness. Jesus arrived four days after Lazarus' death. Jesus, after talking to the grieving sisters and seeing Lazarus' friends weeping, was deeply troubled. After being shown where Lazarus was laid, Jesus wept in front of Lazarus' tomb. He then ordered the people to remove the stone covering his tomb, prayed aloud to God (for the benefit of the people), and ordered Lazarus to come out.
Significance has been attributed to this phrase for a number of reasons, including the following:
Weeping demonstrates that the Christ was indeed true man, with real bodily functions (such as tears, sweat, blood, eating and drinking - note, for comparison, the emphasis laid on Jesus eating during the post-resurrection appearances). His emotions and reactions were real; the Christ was not an illusion or spirit (see Docetism). Pope Leo I referred to this passage when he discussed the two natures of Jesus: "In his humanity Jesus wept for Lazarus; in his divinity he raised him from the dead."
The sorrow felt by Jesus presages the suffering of his own crucifixion.
The sorrow, sympathy, and compassion Jesus felt for all mankind.
Jesus's weeping demonstrates that Lazarus had genuinely died. The raising of Lazarus was therefore not a fraud or a case of misdiagnosis.
Most people interpret his weeping to mean that Jesus was sorrowful for the fact that Lazarus had died (which was the interpretation of the bystanders in verse 36). However, an alternate explanation considers this to be unreasonable, given his full knowledge that he was about to resurrect Lazarus. This view instead argues that every single person whom Jesus talked to in John chapter 11 (his disciples, Martha, Mary, and the Jews) was blinded by their misconceptions of Jesus and by their failure to recognize that, as he declared in verse 26, he himself was "the resurrection and the life". Thus, "he groaned in the spirit and was troubled" (New King James, verse 33). This view holds that he wept because even those who were closest to him were still blinded by their concepts to the fact that he really was "the resurrection and the life"—beyond mere doctrine (verses 25-27)—in spite of all his plain words to them. A striking point in this view is that the only person in the chapter who had no misconceptions was the dead man Lazarus, who promptly obeyed and received life when commanded to come forth. Finally, this view holds that the bystanders in verses 36-37, just like most readers today, were blinded by their own misconceptions and so did not understand that Jesus was actually weeping for them, not for Lazarus.
The sadness shown by Jesus may not be for the death of Lazarus, but rather his resurrection. Considering Christ's knowledge of the afterlife and personal (as well as divine) knowledge of Lazarus' character, he may instead have been filled with grief knowing that Lazarus would be taken from the promise of paradise (technically Lazarus would still be in the Limbo of the Fathers since Christ had not yet opened the gates of heaven) and returned to an imperfect world. His Knowledge that Lazarus would soon be raised would not seem to warrant this sorrow.
Beckham? It was Keegan in my day.bushman*pm wrote:...or Jesus saves but Beckham scored off the rebound!
Hom_Corleone wrote:Beckham? It was Keegan in my day.bushman*pm wrote:...or Jesus saves but Beckham scored off the rebound!
Nah, thats massaging his brain!itnAklipse wrote:Btw, isn't Beckham actually a pretty bad football player? i mean, i watched half a game of his (I HAD MY REASONS) and he scored nothing. He was just pulling up his socks...
Isn't it rather stunning that the English verb 'to cry' actually originates from the Greek word, as you can clearly see above?markfiend wrote:"Jesus wept" (John 11:35) is the shortest verse in (most translations of) the Bible.
Original Greek: ΕΔΑΚΡΥΣΕΝ Ο ΙΗΣΟΥΣ
literally "Weeps the Jesus"
* In my previous post the Greek was all in caps because the original Koiné Greek text was written before the Greek miniscules were invented.ask.com wrote:cry (krī)
[Middle English crien, from Old French crier, from Vulgar Latin* critāre, from Latin quirītāre, to cry out, perhaps from Quirītēs, public officers to whom one would cry out in times of need.]
Yes -I've seen grown men argue about this in a pub quiz! A few translations have job 3:2 as 'He said', but most have 'and job said'.markfiend wrote:"Jesus wept" (John 11:35) is the shortest verse in (most translations of) the Bible.
Original Greek: ΕΔΑΚΡΥΣΕΝ Ο ΙΗΣΟΥΣ
literally "Weeps the Jesus"
Also used by:hellboy69 wrote:Skinny Puppy also sampled the Hellraiser usage, on "Fascist Jock Itch" ~ hmmm, must give it a spin now
Aye.James Blast wrote:Post#17-21, yer 'avin a laff, aintcha?